Edit: In light of cardinal's comment: All I say below is implicitly about the Lebesgue measure (a complete measure). Rereading your question, it seems that that is also what you are asking about. In the general Borel measure case, it might be possible to extend the measure to include your set (something which is not possible with the Lebesgue measure because it is already as big as can be).
The probability of such an event would not be defined. Period. Much like a real valued function is not defined for a (non-real) complex number, a probability measure is defined on measurable sets but not on the non-measurable sets.
So what statements could we make about such an event? Well, for starters, such an event would have to be defined using the axiom of choice. This means that all sets which we can describe by some rule are excluded. I.e., all the sets we are generally interested in are excluded.
But couldn't we say something about the probability of a non-measurable event? Put a bound on it or something? Banach-Tarski's paradox shows that this will not work. If the measure of the finite number of pieces that Banach-Tarski decomposes the sphere into had an upper bound (say, the measure of the sphere), by constructing enough spheres we would run into a contradiction. By a similar argument backwards, we see that the pieces cannot have a non-trivial lower bound.
I haven't shown that all non-measurable sets are this problematic, although I believe that a cleverer person than I should be able to come up with an argument showing that we cannot in any consistent way put any non-trivial boundon the "measure" of any non-measurable set (challenge to the community).
In summary, we can not make any statement about the probability measure of such a set, this is not the end of the world because all relevant sets are measurable.